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Cellular Adaptation and Cellular Damage
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Mature neurons are said to be ...
Question 1 Explanation:
Adult neurons are permanently fixed. There are, of course, exceptions, but the bulk - and certainly the preponderance of clinically relevant neurons - are considered non-convertible.
Which cell type cannot undergo hyperplasia?
Question 2 Explanation:
Neurons cannot undergo hyperplasia.
Which are true of hypertrophic cells?
Increase in cell size
Occurs in permanent cells only
No new structural synthesis
No increase in cytosolic volume
Increased cell size to compensate for a left ventricular outflow stenosis is an example of ...
Question 4 Explanation:
In patients with aortic stenosis, the left ventricle must work harder to force the blood out. The cells will increase in size and therefore we get hypertrophy. As this is a result of a pathology (stenosis) it is pathological. Hypertension can also cause pathological hypertrophy. Physiological hypertrophy is sometimes seen in athletes.
Which of the following may cause a sarcopenic vastus medialis?
Endocrine hyperstimulation response
Question 5 Explanation:
Denervation is the loss of nerve supply. The vastus medialis is a muscle found in the quadraceps. Loss of innervation to a muscle a commonly recognised cause of muscular atrophy.
STEM 1 - Question 1A patient with a history of GORD undergoes an endoscopy. On biopsy, the cells of the distal oesophagus are found to have undergone a cellular transition.
What kind of change are they likely to have undergone?
Question 6 Explanation:
This patient has Barrett's oesophagus. In a response to the inflammation from the continued exposure to stomach acid, the cells of the distal oesophagus undergo transformation from squamous cells to gastric columnar epithelium. This is a reversible change from one adult cell type to another. Therefore this a metaplastic change.
STEM 1 - Question 3Which is a more likely symptom?
Pain worse with cold drinks
Pain worse on standing
Pain between inferior angle of scapulae
Pain localised, sharp
STEM 1 - Question 3The cells continue to change, become undifferentiated and enter a premalignant phase, but are still bound to neuroendocrine regulation.
What state is this cell population best described as entering?
Question 8 Explanation:
This is a dysplastic change - the cells are beginning to lose their function and develop an atypical appearance but their growth is still under neuroendocrine control.
A cell is proliferating even as pro-growth neuroendocrine signals are fully removed.
Which state best describes the above?
Which state best describes the above?
Question 9 Explanation:
Remember that neoplasia is an abnormal growth of cells that persists after the stimulus has been removed.
A patient is in short term respiratory alkalosis due to a mountain climb. Which best explains his state?
Oxygen-tension related hypoxia
Haemoglobin related anaemia
Ischaemic cardiac failure
Which of the following is not a major method of cell injury?
Osmotic environmental damage
Integrity of the cellular membrane
Which cell type below would be most at risk first from a local infarct?
Pancreatic beta cell
Question 12 Explanation:
Myocardial cells (cells of the heart) would be most at risk from ischaemia as they have a higher rate of glycolytic activity.
Loss of cellular calcium homeostasis can cause...
Formation of cellular membranes
Decrease of ATPase activity
Increase of respiration rate
Antioxidants such as ascorbic acid prevent damage from reactive oxygen species (ROS) via which best fitting mechanism?
Remove an electron from ROS
Generation of further free radicals
Reaction of inorganic with organic compounds
Donation of electron to ROS
Question 14 Explanation:
ROS: reactive oxygen species are profoundly damaging to cells.
A patient has sufficient UVB exposure to trigger generation of ROS. Which of the following is increased in the epidermis as a response?
Deiodination of the membrane lipid
Autocatalytic chain reactions
Protein tertiary structure proliferation
DNA synthesis of mitochondria in the short term
Question 15 Explanation:
Ultraviolet type B exposure is commonly seen from sunlight.
Coagulative necrosis is:
Apoptosis is defined as
Enzymatical cell digestion
T/F - coagulative necrosis utilises apoptotic enzymatic digestion
A cerebrovascular accident (i.e. stroke) causes necrosis to the cortical grey matter. What is this type of necrosis classically defined as?
A patient has insidious fever onset, haemoptysis and is administered rifampicin and isoniazid for a number of months. Were a biopsy of her diseased lung to be taken, what necrotising pattern would be realised by the pathologist?
Question 20 Explanation:
The stem suggests the patient has tuberculosis. There is a common treatment algorithm and classically a caseous presentation of necrosis found in lung parenchyma.
A 34YOF, currently breastfeeding her twins, presents with localised tenderness, redness and swelling of the periareolar region of the left breast. A necrosis has occurred. Which type of necrosis is more likely?
A patient presents with nonreducible mass of the scrotum revealed to be a varicocele. What form of infarct is the ipsilateral testicle at risk of?
In which of the following instances would pathological apoptosis be prudent?
Proliferative potential loss of stem cell population
Potentially harmful lymphocytic elimination
Question 23 Explanation:
In states of DNA, organelle damage, intracellular invasion (Eg viral) or pathological atrophy second to infarct/duct occlusion, pathological apoptosis is initiated.
Which of the following are best matched to the process of apoptosis?
Enlarged cell size
Frequent adjacent cellular inflammation
Intact cellular contents
Disrupted cellular membrane
Which of the following are best matched to the process of necrosis?
Nuclear condensation (pyknosis)
Altered structure of lipid membrane, but integrity persists
No adjacent inflammation
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There are 25 questions to complete.