😀 EASY
Did you know that placenta means flat cake? Yeah, its one of those useless facts. But unlike that statement, the placenta itself is so important – and so often misunderstood. Please watch the video, or if you’re feeling confident in your embryology, have a crack at this longer-than-usual quiz!
Awaiting review
- The development of the placenta from the morula phase
- The structure of the placenta
- The changes in fetal demand for energy
- An appreciation of the main types of placental disorder: placenta accreta, placental percreta, placental abruption and pre-eclampsia.
placenta
Congratulations - you have completed placenta.
You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.
Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1 |
Which of the following organs are least involved in the physiology of placentation?
Hypothalamus Hint: P | |
Pituitary | |
Ovary | |
Uterus | |
Adrenal gland |
Question 1 Explanation:
Whilst it is true that the adrenal glands are vital for later development, they play a minimal role in healthy placentation.
Question 2 |
Select all the below options that are not the remit of the female gonad
Secretion of oestrogen | |
Synthesis of progesterone | |
Secretion of beta-hCG | |
Oogenesis | |
Fertilisation |
Question 2 Explanation:
Fertilisation occurs in the ampulla. The corpus luteum of the ruptured Graafian follicle is maintained by hCG from an extra-ovarian source.
Question 3 |
What is stimulated by GnRH?
Hypothalamus | |
Anterior pituitary gland | |
Posterior pituitary gland | |
Endometrium | |
Myometrium |
Question 3 Explanation:
The anterior pituitary gland, specifically gonadotrophin cells, secrete LH and FSH in response to GnRH from the hypothalamus.
Question 4 |
What is a direct role of FSH? Select all that may apply.
Vital for folliculogenesis | |
Vital for deciidualisation | |
Causes the ovarian surge | |
Causes ovulation | |
Permits menses |
Question 5 |
What triggers of FSH release from the anterior pituitary gland?
GnRH | |
FSH | |
LH | |
Oestrogen | |
Progesteorne |
Question 5 Explanation:
Low oestrogen levels cause FSH increase. This stimulates the gonadal follicles to produce oestrogen, creating a negative feedback loop. At a point, serum oestrogen is so high that LH becomes the predominant and decidualisation can occur alongside ovulation.
Question 6 |
Which region of the body is vital to maintain the first 2 weeks of pregnancy?
Graafian follicle | |
Primary follicle | |
Primordial follicle | |
Corpus luteum | |
Corpus albicans |
Question 7 |
What is contained in the connecting stalk? Select all that may apply.
Ectodermal cells | |
Endodermal cells | |
Embryonic mesoderm | |
Extra-embryonic mesoderm | |
Wharton's jelly |
Question 8 |
At what day from fertilisation do the lacunae of the syncytiotrophoblast emerge?
D7 | |
D8 | |
D9 | |
D10 | |
D11 |
Question 9 |
The smooth chorion (chorionic laeve) is in apposition to
Decidua basalis | |
Decidua capsularis | |
Decidua parietalis | |
Decidua temporalis | |
Decidua occipitalis |
Question 10 |
The chorionic frondosum is comprised of which cell types? Select all which may apply.
Cytotrophoblast | |
Syncytiotrophoblast | |
Extraembryonic mesoderm | |
Epiblast cells | |
Ectodermal cells |
Question 11 |
How is glucose transported across the placenta?
GLUT1 | |
GLUT2 | |
GLUT3
| |
GLUT4
| |
GLUT5 |
Question 11 Explanation:
Warwick Medical School have their likes. Weirdly, they seem to love GLUT. In this case, the answer is GLUT3. GLUT1 forms the basis of transport in red blood cells and the blood brain barrier. GLUT2 is the beta-cell (and liver) one. GLUT3 is in the placenta and neurons. GLUT4 is for most adipocytes. GLUT5 is for enterocyte uptake from gut lumen.
Question 12 |
Which of the following statements are false?
Oestrogen stimulates uterine vascularisation | |
Oestrogen stimulates FSH levels | |
Oestrogen surge triggers ovulation | |
Progesteone causes changes to the decidua functionalis | |
Progesterone causes the laxity of the pubic symphysis |
Question 13 |
Which cell type anchors the placenta to the basal plate?
Extraembryonic mesoderm | |
Amniotic epiblast cells | |
Splanchonopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm | |
Somatopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm | |
Cytotrophoblast cells |
Question 14 |
Which of the following are not a constituent of the tertiary placental villus?
Cytotrophoblast | |
Syncytiotrophoblast | |
Extraembryonic mesoderm | |
Cotyledon artery | |
Paraxial mesoderm |
Question 14 Explanation:
Paraxial mesoderm is derived from the embryoblast inner cell mass - specifically the mesoderm of the trilaminar disc
Question 15 |
Which two structures fuse to obliterate the uterine cavity during gestation?
Decidua basalis | |
Decidua capitalis | |
Decidua parietalis | |
Chorion plate | |
Chorion laeve |
Question 16 |
The amniotic cavity is lined with which type of cell?
Epiblast | |
Mesoderm | |
Ectoderm | |
Endoderm | |
Syncytiotrophoblast |
Question 17 |
What finding on dipstick would suggest pre-eclampsia of the gravid patient?
Albuminuria | |
Frank haematuria | |
Glycosuria | |
Ketonuria | |
Pyouria |
Question 18 |
A placenta accreta is a penetration to which mural layer?
Stratum functionalis | |
Stratum basilis | |
Myometrium | |
Perimetrium | |
Peritoneal cavity |
Question 19 |
Which cell type is more likely deficient in a placental abruption?
Cytotrophoblast | |
Syncytiotrophoblast | |
Extraembryonic mesoderm | |
Intermediate mesoderm | |
Ectoderm |
Question 20 |
Which of the following toxins is least likely to be involved in placental transfer?
Cytomegalovirus | |
SARSCOV2 | |
Syphilis | |
HIV | |
Rubella |
Question 21 |
Which hormone is mostly responsible for gestational hyperglycaemia?
hCG | |
hPL | |
hCT | |
Oestrogen | |
Progesterone |
Question 21 Explanation:
Human placental lactogen decreases glucose utilisation. This increases the osmotic potential of the serum, thereby the filtrate, causing osmotic diuresis.
Question 22 |
Where is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy?
Fimbrae | |
Ampulla | |
Infundibulum | |
Isthmus | |
Uterine body |
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect.
There are 22 questions to complete.